Economics

Economics Short Quiz : Introduction & Basics of Economics : Short Quiz

1. Economics is the study of:

Answer: a) The allocation of scarce resources to fulfill unlimited wants and needs.

2. Which of the following is NOT considered a scarce resource in economics?

Answer: d) Air

3. The fundamental problem of economics is:

Answer: b) How to allocate unlimited resources to satisfy unlimited wants.

4. Opportunity cost is best defined as:

Answer: c) The highest-valued alternative forgone when a decision is made.

5. Which of the following is a microeconomic question?

Answer: c) How do consumers’ preferences affect the demand for a specific product?

6. Macroeconomics primarily focuses on:

Answer: c) The overall performance of the economy.

7. In economics, “ceteris paribus” means:

Answer: a) “All things considered.”

8. Which of the following statements best represents the concept of “utility” in economics?

Answer: c) Utility refers to the satisfaction or happiness derived from consuming goods and services.

9. “Guns or butter” is a classic economic example used to illustrate the concept of:

Answer: b) Opportunity cost

10. Which of the following is NOT a factor of production in economics?

Answer: c) Money

11. The study of how individuals and societies make choices about the production, consumption, and distribution of goods and services is known as:

Answer: c) Economics

12. Which of the following best describes the law of demand?

Answer: d) As the price of a good decreases, the quantity demanded increases.

13. The measure of responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price is known as:

Answer: a) Elasticity of demand

14. When price and quantity demanded have a direct relationship, the demand curve is:

Answer: a) Upward-sloping

15. A government-imposed maximum price that is below the equilibrium price is called:

Answer: b) Price ceiling

16. The total revenue of a firm is calculated as:

Answer: a) Price multiplied by quantity sold

17. In the short run, a firm in a perfectly competitive market will shut down if price falls below:

Answer: a) Average variable cost

18. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures changes in the prices of a basket of goods and services purchased by:

Answer: c) Consumers

19. Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and taxation to:

Answer: b) Stabilize the economy

20. The natural rate of unemployment is:

Answer: a) The unemployment rate that exists when the economy is operating at full employment.

21. When the actual inflation rate is lower than expected inflation, who benefits the most?

Answer: a) Borrowers

22. The Phillips curve shows the relationship between:

Answer: a) Inflation and unemployment

23. The central bank’s primary tool for conducting monetary policy is:

Answer: b) Open market operations

24. The Lorenz curve is used to illustrate:

Answer: b) The income distribution in an economy.

25. The term “comparative advantage” is used to describe a situation in which a country can produce a good at a lower:

Answer: a) Opportunity cost than other countries.

26. Which of the following is NOT a function of money in an economy?

Answer: c) Unit of production

27. The concept of “time value of money” suggests that:

Answer: c) Money invested today will always be worth more than the same amount received in the future.

28. Which of the following statements about economic systems is correct?

Answer: d) In a traditional economy, resources are allocated based on customs and traditions.

29. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a measure of:

Answer: b) The total value of all goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a given period.

30. Which of the following is NOT a component of GDP?

Answer: d) Trade balance

31. The circular flow model of the economy shows:

Answer: d) All of the above.

32. In the circular flow model, the market where businesses sell goods and services to households is known as the:

Answer: a) Product market

33. In the circular flow model, the market where households sell their labor and other factors of production to businesses is known as the:

Answer: b) Factor market

34. Economic growth is measured by the:

Answer: c) Increase in the level of real GDP over time.

35. Economic indicators, such as GDP, unemployment rate, and inflation rate, are used to:

Answer: b) Evaluate government policies and economic performance.

36. The natural rate of unemployment is the level of unemployment that occurs when:

Answer: b) The economy is at full employment and operating at its potential output.

37. The unemployment rate is calculated as the number of unemployed individuals:

Answer: b) Divided by the number of people in the labor force.

38. Structural unemployment occurs when:

Answer: c) There is a mismatch between the skills of job seekers and the skills demanded by employers.

39. The Phillips curve illustrates the inverse relationship between:

Answer: a) Inflation and unemployment.

40. Stagflation refers to a situation where an economy experiences:

Answer: a) High inflation and high unemployment simultaneously.

41. The Federal Reserve uses monetary policy to:

Answer: b) Regulate the money supply and influence interest rates to stabilize the economy.

42. Market equilibrium occurs when:

Answer: c) The quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied.

43. A price ceiling is a government-imposed maximum price set:

Answer: b) Below the equilibrium price.

44. If the price of a good is above the equilibrium price, there will be a:

Answer: c) Shortage, and the price will increase.

45. The main goal of a firm operating in a market economy is to:

Answer: c) Maximize profit.

46. Which of the following market structures is characterized by a single seller and significant barriers to entry?

Answer: d) Monopoly

47. Monopolistic competition is characterized by:

Answer: c) Many sellers offering differentiated products.

48. In a perfectly competitive market, firms are:

Answer: b) Price takers

49. The Laffer curve illustrates the relationship between tax rates and:

Answer: c) Tax revenue

50. Game theory is a branch of economics that studies:

Answer: c) The strategic interactions between decision-makers in various situations.

51. In a simultaneous-move game, players make decisions:

Answer: b) At the same time without knowing the others’ choices.

52. A dominant strategy in game theory refers to a strategy that:

Answer: a) Yields the highest possible payoff for a player, regardless of the other player’s choice.

53. The Nash equilibrium in a game occurs when:

Answer: c) Each player chooses the best strategy given the other player’s choice.

54. The Coase theorem suggests that, in the presence of externalities, private parties can reach an efficient outcome through:

Answer: b) The market system without any government intervention.

55. Public goods are characterized by:

Answer: d) Nonrivalry in consumption and nonexcludability.

56. The “free-rider” problem occurs with public goods because:

Answer: b) People can enjoy the benefits of the good without paying for it.

57. The tragedy of the commons is a situation in which:

Answer: c) Common resources are overused and depleted due to lack of ownership and control.

58. A positive externality occurs when:

Answer: b) An activity generates benefits that are not reflected in the market price.

59. The concept of “comparative advantage” is used to describe a situation in which a country can produce a good at a lower:

Answer: a) Opportunity cost than other countries.

60. Which of the following is NOT a function of money in an economy?

Answer: c) Unit of production

61. The concept of “time value of money” suggests that:

Answer: c) Money invested today will always be worth more than the same amount received in the future.

62. Which of the following statements about economic systems is correct?

Answer: d) In a traditional economy, resources are allocated based on customs and traditions.

63. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a measure of:

Answer: b) The total value of all goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a given period.

64. Which of the following is NOT a component of GDP?

Answer: d) Trade balance

65. The circular flow model of the economy shows:

Answer: d) All of the above.

66. In the circular flow model, the market where businesses sell goods and services to households is known as the:

Answer: a) Product market

67. In the circular flow model, the market where households sell their labor and other factors of production to businesses is known as the:

Answer: b) Factor market

68. Economic growth is measured by the:

Answer: c) Increase in the level of real GDP over time.

69. Economic indicators, such as GDP, unemployment rate, and inflation rate, are used to:

Answer: b) Evaluate government policies and economic performance.

70. The natural rate of unemployment is the level of unemployment that occurs when:

Answer: b) The economy is at full employment and operating at its potential output.

71. The unemployment rate is calculated as the number of unemployed individuals:

Answer: b) Divided by the number of people in the labor force.

72. Structural unemployment occurs when:

Answer: c) There is a mismatch between the skills of job seekers and the skills demanded by employers.

73. The Phillips curve illustrates the inverse relationship between:

Answer: a) Inflation and unemployment.

74. Stagflation refers to a situation where an economy experiences:

Answer: a) High inflation and high unemployment simultaneously.

75. The Federal Reserve uses monetary policy to:

Answer: b) Regulate the money supply and influence interest rates to stabilize the economy.

76. Market equilibrium occurs when:

Answer: c) The quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied.

77. A price ceiling is a government-imposed maximum price set:

Answer: b) Below the equilibrium price.

78. If the price of a good is above the equilibrium price, there will be a:

Answer: c) Shortage, and the price will increase.

79. The main goal of a firm operating in a market economy is to:

Answer: c) Maximize profit.

80. Which of the following market structures is characterized by a single seller and significant barriers to entry?

Answer: d) Monopoly

81. Monopolistic competition is characterized by:

Answer: c) Many sellers offering differentiated products.

82. In a perfectly competitive market, firms are:

Answer: b) Price takers

83. The Laffer curve illustrates the relationship between tax rates and:

Answer: c) Tax revenue

84. Game theory is a branch of economics that studies:

Answer: c) The strategic interactions between decision-makers in various situations.

85. In a simultaneous-move game, players make decisions:

Answer: b) At the same time without knowing the others’ choices.

86. A dominant strategy in game theory refers to a strategy that:

Answer: a) Yields the highest possible payoff for a player, regardless of the other player’s choice.

87. The Nash equilibrium in a game occurs when:

Answer: c) Each player chooses the best strategy given the other player’s choice.

88. The Coase theorem suggests that, in the presence of externalities, private parties can reach an efficient outcome through:

Answer: b) The market system without any government intervention.

89. Public goods are characterized by:

Answer: d) Nonrivalry in consumption and nonexcludability.

90. The “free-rider” problem occurs with public goods because:

Answer: b) People can enjoy the benefits of the good without paying for it.

91. The tragedy of the commons is a situation in which:

Answer: c) Common resources are overused and depleted due to lack of ownership and control.

92. A positive externality occurs when:

Answer: b) An activity generates benefits that are not reflected in the market price.

93. The concept of “comparative advantage” is used to describe a situation in which a country can produce a good at a lower:

Answer: a) Opportunity cost than other countries.

94. Which of the following is NOT a function of money in an economy?

Answer: c) Unit of production

95. The concept of “time value of money” suggests that:

Answer: c) Money invested today will always be worth more than the same amount received in the future.

96. Which of the following statements about economic systems is correct?

Answer: d) In a traditional economy, resources are allocated based on customs and traditions.

97. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a measure of:

Answer: b) The total value of all goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a given period.

98. Which of the following is NOT a component of GDP?

Answer: d) Trade balance

99. The circular flow model of the economy shows:

Answer: d) All of the above.

100. In the circular flow model, the market where businesses sell goods and services to households is known as the:

Answer: a) Product market

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